Say a person has 100K in OA and 100K in SA. FRS is $176,000.
Normal scenario. 100k from SA and 76K from OA is taken to form RA. Therefore, balance becomes this after age 55:
OA: 24K (2.5%), SA: 0 (4%), RA: 176K (4%)
SA Shielding scenario. 40K from SA
and 100K from OA is taken to form RA. Therefore, balance becomes this after age 55:
OA: 0 (2.5%), SA: 60K (4%), RA: 140K (4%)
Of course, scenario 2 is better since the full 200k earns 4%
Thanks for the explanation, but we can opt to transfer OA to RA first right?
So why take the trouble to do shielding?
Using SA to do investment may not even yield 4%.
