Interesting interpretation. (=
Apart from the duration and $$ paid, your position is also that the ownership of a property is determined by one’s legal rights to sell / rent the property conferred by a contractual agreement. Supposed if he / she / it could sell / rent, he / she / it is obliged to pay the property tax. The terminology used / its synonyms does not matter. Is that right?
Yes, based on my layman interpretation of the English words - that's the main gist of what I consider are the differences in the 3 terms. It should be based on the fact of what rights are afforded to them, rather than what they are called.
Though the last part about the terminology bears some further explanation. This is the part that is dependant on the context.
I would guess that somewhere out there, are parties who would state in the contract that the leesee is the de facto owner and/or needs to pay property tax. So in this case, the definition in the contracts signed (and agreed!) between the parties would take precedence over what are the general meanings of the terms used.
In fact, they can even do away with using the words owner/leesee, and call the de factor owner "Mickey Mouse" and leesee "Donald Duck".
Plus any special terms like saying Mickey Mouse owns the property, pays property tax, can sell, but cannot modify the property's facade. (as an example, properties with historical significance like certain castles in Europe).
Legal contracts can be really evil and major ones should always be reviewed by one's own lawyers. Otherwise, when fecal matter hits the fan, there is no such thing as trust in good faith. Each party will comb the contract for whatever is written to support their claims.