SIM UOL students lip lais! - Part 7

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INVS 2.0

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I did Q2 and Q6.

Q2a is actually short run. Local artists should be making losses since costs of production are higher. Consumers can't make any difference should indicate price level and demand curve won't change. Now, for the imitators, some say normal profit, some say positive profit. I wrote down positive profits because imitators do not need to spend on R&D costs to develop products, they can just rip off local artists and thus enjoy lower AC/MC.

I screwed up Part C and D with the fixed fee and lump sum tax. But I think if I get the correct intuition for Part A and bits of B, there should be 10 marks for micro long Q.

Q6 is both PCM and NCM. When the question doesn't indicate which one, you should use both scenerios. Of course, it is an open economy since foreigners can walk in and buy homes. But I drew only 2 graphs and painted both fixed and flexible exchange rates. Fixed one will shift IS out first, followed by NX=0, central bank thingy and LM will shift down. In the end, same i/r but higher Y. Flexible should last shift the IS back to the original equilibrium. PCM wise, almost the same as NCM but now with capital inflow theory. That's all. No time to finish Part C but I just quickly wrote down that we can't deduce much from the info of govt spending vs public housing since the question doesn't specify if foreigners like public housing or not.

MCQ side, I think many candidates can at least get 20 marks. It was easier than prelim, in my opinion. Assuming you get 20 for MCQ, 10 for production, and 10 for macro by just drawing the PCM + NCM models, you win. :)
 

JudeBox

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yes they sell at same price since it stated that the consumers cannot differentiate between the fake and real jewellery. so its the analysis on whose AC curve is higher who is making profits etc and how it shifts

Can I ask, for (c) did the question state that the imposed fee is given to the local artist? I don't rmb seeing it :O saw on vle forum, one person said that
 

JudeBox

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Ya, it mention paying a fee to copy the original. If the money does not go to original question c and d will be the same
Ohhhh, yes so it did not mention the money goes to the original. So its an assumption(i think its a legit one but i didnt make that. Fkkk)Oh damn I never think so much so I never assume anything for that that's why my C and D is the same.oh well. Im Screwed
 
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brendalowe

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Ohhhh, yes so it did not mention the money goes to the original. So its an assumption(i think its a legit one but i didnt make that. Fkkk)Oh damn I never think so much so I never assume anything for that that's why my C and D is the same.oh well. Im Screwed

oh mai gawd :s11: same for me. i think its ridiculous for a firm to get a fee from a imitators to copy, its just like supporting piracy... was thinking fixed fee in a way its attach to each good like a per unit tax so MC shifts up instead... oh well hope i get marks :spin:
 

JudeBox

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oh mai gawd :s11: same for me. i think its ridiculous for a firm to get a fee from a imitators to copy, its just like supporting piracy... was thinking fixed fee in a way its attach to each good like a per unit tax so MC shifts up instead... oh well hope i get marks :spin:

ThI don't think we are wrong because the question never says so (im in a self-denial state)hahahahahaha. But honestly, that assumption really quite legit. Lol.let's hope will have sympathy marks
 

brendalowe

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ThI don't think we are wrong because the question never says so (im in a self-denial state)hahahahahaha. But honestly, that assumption really quite legit. Lol.let's hope will have sympathy marks

part A & B correct can liao aiming just for pass :s12:
 

Fxmavis

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revaluation for subsidiary right? look at the date of revaluation, if it's the same day as acquisition then it won't affect the share cap or retained earnings

it will be then used for calculating NCI under the SOFP

if i'm wrong please correct me

I thought before acq no need add in. If on date of acq or after, only add in the portion that belongs to u?
 

gnowyx

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I thought before acq no need add in. If on date of acq or after, only add in the portion that belongs to u?

Post acq minus pre acq x your contol % belongs to your profit if revaluation takes place after your acq your subsidiary.

If before acq then u dun add to your profit but use for your NCI calculation at equity, since equity for sub is increased with revaluation

edit: and used for calc of goodwill of cos
 
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lolita_5

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Ya, the fees is given to the original

Ya, it mention paying a fee to copy the original. If the money does not go to original question c and d will be the same

oh mai gawd :s11: same for me. i think its ridiculous for a firm to get a fee from a imitators to copy, its just like supporting piracy... was thinking fixed fee in a way its attach to each good like a per unit tax so MC shifts up instead... oh well hope i get marks :spin:

got meh? I don't rmb reading that as well. If I'm an imitator and I got to pay a fee to imitate others, might as well I don't imitate since I'll just be breaking even like the real ones

I think the part abt imitators being dependent is just there to confuse. Well, u know...the examiner. Don't think too much lah
 

superslueth221

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Hey guys POA enquiry here... Why is it when preparing the cash flow statement we add back the total accumulated depreciation of a disposed asset to the net profit along with the yearly depreciation charge?
 

SageWolf

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Well since every one is interested I will just write down my ans for qn2. Not 100% correct so dun scold me .

2a) Original start with normal profit, Imitator start with super profit.

2B) In long run, some original artist might become imitator. New films joining the industries will prefer to be imitator due to the larger profit. This would increase shift supply curve to the right and original start to make a lost. In the long run all original will leave the market and the imitator will have noting to copy therefore the end of this industry.

2c) A fee transfer from imitator to original means that AC decrease for original and AC increase for imitator. In long run new films will still choose to become imitator due to the larger profit this would increase supply. And some of the original will leave the industry. therefore in equilibrium, there will be less original and more imitator.

2d) (I did not have enough time to complete, wasted cause i noe how to do)
If the tax is large enough to push the AC to the same magnitude as original, there will not be a change in equilibrium.

If the magnitude is insufficient, it would be similar as case 2c.
 

Benjamin91

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Your part a and b same as me...while for part c and d both increase ac only...paying fixed fee to copy dosent mean the money goes to original right...can be to govt ma
 

SageWolf

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the fee could go to govt as well. But I infer it as giving to the original. It's open ended question, so i believe either ways goes.
 

xavier4

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wow.. now i'm having doubts too.. i didnt read qn fully..

my initial is that because its competitive.. imitators will be the only making normal profits due to their lower cost.. whereas at start local artists alr making loss.. then in LR they will leave..

:< hope the examiner buys my story as well..
 

xavier4

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the fee could go to govt as well. But I infer it as giving to the original. It's open ended question, so i believe either ways goes.

yeah they didnt state where the fees if i remb correctly so i wrote assuming that it is paid to the local artists..

well i guess its a v open qn indeed.. alot of scenarios are acceptable.. i hope :<
 
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