Prof. Utonium
High Supremacy Member
- Joined
- Feb 12, 2009
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Folks,
Just pondered about this for the past 1 year but did not really put into writing or actions. Since the horizon for me to take action will still be >5 years later. Purely out of curiosity sake in terms of optimal returns.
Lets say I have inherited a HDB and fully paid. Ownership had been transferred to solely my name. Parent/Siblings removed, especially my sibling as the sibling does not want it [too much hassle when married and balloting] hence I have to give in and put under my name.
75 years lease remaining.
Scenario 1.
Ballot a new BTO for a new and longer lease. At the same time cash out the older lease. This provides me 2 leverage. Cash in hand for other investments and to utilize CPF OA for mortgage.
Could consider 2nd property [private] as investment but purely speculation now due to ABSD, unless I use another name. Which is still in consideration.
Scenario 2.
Get a private affordable condo, not penthouse but perhaps <$1.5M and rent out either 1 of the property.
Assuming I will rent out either 1 of the property AND until the end of the lease = $0 value.
Frankly, I think 1st option should be the best? I am able to cash out older lease and at the same time utilize my OA?
Am I right to say that?
Do share inputs. I NMNHNLM BBFA, just asking.
Just pondered about this for the past 1 year but did not really put into writing or actions. Since the horizon for me to take action will still be >5 years later. Purely out of curiosity sake in terms of optimal returns.
Lets say I have inherited a HDB and fully paid. Ownership had been transferred to solely my name. Parent/Siblings removed, especially my sibling as the sibling does not want it [too much hassle when married and balloting] hence I have to give in and put under my name.
75 years lease remaining.
Scenario 1.
Ballot a new BTO for a new and longer lease. At the same time cash out the older lease. This provides me 2 leverage. Cash in hand for other investments and to utilize CPF OA for mortgage.
Could consider 2nd property [private] as investment but purely speculation now due to ABSD, unless I use another name. Which is still in consideration.
Scenario 2.
Get a private affordable condo, not penthouse but perhaps <$1.5M and rent out either 1 of the property.
Assuming I will rent out either 1 of the property AND until the end of the lease = $0 value.
Frankly, I think 1st option should be the best? I am able to cash out older lease and at the same time utilize my OA?
Am I right to say that?
Do share inputs. I NMNHNLM BBFA, just asking.

