Hi guys,
I have been investing in stocks for the past 3 years but new to options and getting myself up to speed with the topic.
For e.g. Stock A is priced at $5 today. I buy 1 contract of Stock A's call option for say $2.50 * 100. So by paying $250, I get to "indirectly own" 100 shares of Stock A.
In this case, the capital is only $250 for the option compared to $500 if I were to purchase the 100 shares of Stock A.
And if Stock A increases to $5.50, the option premium will then increase in intrinsic value which means that I will benefit from capital gains of 100 shares even though I do not directly own Stock A.
But flip side is that I could lose my entire premium if the option is OTM by expiry, compared to the actual stock where I will still own the stock even if price drop and I have the luxury of time to wait for it to rebound.
Is my thinking above accurate?
I have been investing in stocks for the past 3 years but new to options and getting myself up to speed with the topic.
For e.g. Stock A is priced at $5 today. I buy 1 contract of Stock A's call option for say $2.50 * 100. So by paying $250, I get to "indirectly own" 100 shares of Stock A.
In this case, the capital is only $250 for the option compared to $500 if I were to purchase the 100 shares of Stock A.
And if Stock A increases to $5.50, the option premium will then increase in intrinsic value which means that I will benefit from capital gains of 100 shares even though I do not directly own Stock A.
But flip side is that I could lose my entire premium if the option is OTM by expiry, compared to the actual stock where I will still own the stock even if price drop and I have the luxury of time to wait for it to rebound.
Is my thinking above accurate?