So many pretend lawyers here giving misleading advice.
TS already said he never sign OTP. He only receive the money. Technically, anyone can PayNow to anyone. TS didn’t need to “accept” the funds. Unless there was evidence of verbal acceptance by TS that the $1,000 is for OTP purpose.
Then again, without a signed OTP, what legal basis is there to prove how much TS wants to sell, when to sell, any extension etc? The buyer can initiate civil claim but will he win? I don’t think so.
If “consideration” was so easy to be fulfilled, then there’s no need for law degree. At the very least I have one.