Shiny Things
Supremacy Member
- Joined
- Dec 13, 2009
- Messages
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The latter is not part of the U.S. Federal Reserve's mandate. The Federal Reserve's primary mandate is maximum employment (correct), and the Fed's secondary mandate is "stable prices." There is no specific inflation target in the statute, and there's no actual consensus backing for 2% as a target (cap or average). The 2% figure is a figure some central bankers pulled out of their asses.
So you're absolutely right that there's no specific inflation target. The point I was getting at, though, was that inflation was about to crash away from "low but stable" to "icky and deflationary", and that gave the Fed room to act.
Moreover, many, many central bankers have been miserable failures in managing inflation at or even near 2%. Do you want to discuss the German central bank...oh, excuse me, the European Central Bank?![]()
Oh, don't get me started on those guys. In their defense, the Draghi-era ECB successfully used the bazooka in 2011 to stave off pan-European contagion; my only wish is that they'd had a bigger bazooka and kept firing it in spite of Germany's weird case of monetary Calvinism.
Though you can, and I would, argue that when you get close to zero interest rates, monetary policy loses its effectiveness, and fiscal policy becomes much more effective... so the German government bears some responsibility, because they refused to do anything on the fiscal policy side to fix Germany's excess savings problem. Same goes for Switzerland.
Hi Shiny, I have started building my portfolio since start of this year. But via SCB instead of IB for IWDA component.
Would it be wise to transfer it to IB considering I'm buying for long term and currently I'm investing S$1k monthly and plan to increase yearly? While my G3B and MBH is in POSB.
Yep. Once your amounts increase a little further, you'll get more value out of the tighter FX spreads at IBKR than you would from the no-monthly-fees at Stanchart. You might as well do it now.
Are you alluding to Singapore?
Yep.
Shiny:
For a credit/debit spread options trade, if we set the limit price to somewhere in between the bid/ask, how does the platform know when to execute the trade? Eg. a bull put spread. Does it just wait the higher strike put bid + lower strike put ask equals the limit price I'm asking for before simultaneously executing?
Depends on the broker and the algorithm; for example, here's how IBKR routes options spread orders. Not knowing the guts of how IBKR's smart-router works, my reflex would be that it works orders in the individual legs at prices where if one leg gets filled, it'll be able to hit a resting order to fill the other leg and fill you on the spread at your desired price.
IBKR does point out that they'll try to route spread orders to Nasdaq ISE first, which has its own complex order book that interacts with ISE's order books for the individual legs. Basically this stuff gets really complicated, but in short it's letting the exchange try to find the fill for you, rather than IBKR or you having to hunt for the fill on each leg.
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