*Official* Shiny Things club - Part 2

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razoreigns

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They can count generically as "stock-likes" when you're trying to figure out stock-bond allocations. If they are individual properties then they have specific geographic places, so when you're looking at how much geographic risk you have you assign them to their various places. Individual REITs are usually geographically concentrated, too. REIT funds may or may not be geographically diversified.

Should the primary residence be counted in the stock-bond allocation or should it only be for the subsequent properties/REIT?
If primary residence was counted, I believe that most Singaporeans should not make too much investments into ES3, but pour most of the savings into IWDA, since they also have CPF to be considered under the bond allocation?
 

w1rbelw1nd

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Should the primary residence be counted in the stock-bond allocation or should it only be for the subsequent properties/REIT?
If primary residence was counted, I believe that most Singaporeans should not make too much investments into ES3, but pour most of the savings into IWDA, since they also have CPF to be considered under the bond allocation?

Does it really matter if residence is calculated inside? Why should it matter? Wonder why are you asking so much on this. I think most people exclude their ppty investments from their "investable portfolio".
 

razoreigns

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Does it really matter if residence is calculated inside? Why should it matter? Wonder why are you asking so much on this. I think most people exclude their ppty investments from their "investable portfolio".

Yes, I think it would be important to understand from a learning perspective. And I am here to learn. :) This is especially so when the asset class constitutes a very significant percentage to one's total assets (especially in a Singaporean context). This understanding, in turn could result in a vastly different asset allocation into local stocks, global stocks, bonds and also subsequent re-balancing efforts.
 

BBCWatcher

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In my view, you count everything on a household basis. You then compare your full accounting to your preferred portfolio allocation splits.

Yes, home equity often represents a large percentage of total household wealth. (It also happens to be illiquid.) Is that common reality a problem? Not necessarily. Regardless, I think it's better to understand and to consider reality instead of ignoring it.
 

w1rbelw1nd

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It's a personal choice IMO. I have friends who own a EC, and close to zero equity investment and I have friends who are staying with their parents and are fully invested into equities. Would I ask the EC person to sell his residence to buy equities? Nope. using averages and heuristics to simplify complex, personal investment decisions doesn't seem intuitive to me :/

Yes, I think it would be important to understand from a learning perspective. And I am here to learn. :) This is especially so when the asset class constitutes a very significant percentage to one's total assets (especially in a Singaporean context). This understanding, in turn could result in a vastly different asset allocation into local stocks, global stocks, bonds and also subsequent re-balancing efforts.
 

razoreigns

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It's a personal choice IMO. I have friends who own a EC, and close to zero equity investment and I have friends who are staying with their parents and are fully invested into equities. Would I ask the EC person to sell his residence to buy equities? Nope. using averages and heuristics to simplify complex, personal investment decisions doesn't seem intuitive to me :/

Don't get me wrong, I wasn't advocating property as an asset class. It was really a question on whether we can broadly consider our home ownership as having invested into equities. And if so, then we do not need to make so much further investments into STI, but more into IWDA and bonds. This way, we remain balanced in our equity/bond allocation split.
 

razoreigns

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In my view, you count everything on a household basis. You then compare your full accounting to your preferred portfolio allocation splits.

Yes, home equity often represents a large percentage of total household wealth. (It also happens to be illiquid.) Is that common reality a problem? Not necessarily. Regardless, I think it's better to understand and to consider reality instead of ignoring it.

Thanks BBCW, I learnt so much through these conversations. :)
 

w1rbelw1nd

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I think it's oversimplifying things. Property price movement is determined by very different factors. It's a totally different asset class from stocks and bonds. Singapore property prices generally hold well and is very well managed by government. I don't think it's fair to think of it as being as risky as stocks (unless you own something in Sentosa cove), and even so, again it's a risky asset class that have low correlation to equities.


Don't get me wrong, I wasn't advocating property as an asset class. It was really a question on whether we can broadly consider our home ownership as having invested into equities. And if so, then we do not need to make so much further investments into STI, but more into IWDA and bonds. This way, we remain balanced in our equity/bond allocation split.
 

BBCWatcher

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Property price movement is determined by very different factors.
Not "on another planet" different. Apple, Facebook, and Alphabet (as examples) seem to be doing quite well in business terms. Their stocks have higher prices. Quite relatedly, housing valuations in the San Francisco Bay Area have gone up a lot, too.

It's a totally different asset class from stocks and bonds.
Totally different seems overwrought. If you're trying to divide assets into two "buckets," then clearly it's stock-like. If you want three buckets, or five buckets, or whatever, OK, but rough portfolio risk "sanity checks" are still useful.

Singapore property prices generally hold well and is very well managed by government.
Those characteristics are much more applicable to Singapore Government Securities.

I don't think it's fair to think of it as being as risky as stocks (unless you own something in Sentosa cove), and even so, again it's a risky asset class that have low correlation to equities.
You have to keep in mind that stocks trade on public markets and are constantly quoted and re-quoted. You can get prices for them every trading day, in some cases every second or less. Vista Canyons unit #05-31 (fictional home, I assume) doesn't have a ticker symbol, doesn't trade on a public market, and offers no published prices every second. But the lack of pricing data and trading volume doesn't mean that its hypothetical instant value isn't constantly changing. It's an illiquid asset with high trading/transaction costs, that's all....

....Except when real estate is securitized and publicly traded in the form of REITs. Then we can visibly see whether real estate valuations are volatile. And oh my yes, yes they are! The market price of Ascendas REIT, for example, bounces around much like the price of DBS's stock. In fact, over the past year Ascendas REIT has traded between S$2.45 and S$3.16 per share, a ratio of 1.29. DBS: S$22.65 and S$28.64, a ratio of 1.26. Yes, that's right: the REIT has had a wider trading band over the past year than DBS has. The properties this REIT holds really haven't changed much or at all, and they certainly haven't lifted themselves off their foundations and moved down the street. But the prices bounce around all the time when they're visible. It's just more pricing noise, if you'd like to think of it that way -- more price points feeding the ticker.

If you simply chucked all the stock market data in the garbage except for one average price quotation per month, how would it look? Like URA's data for real estate valuations, probably.

The 10 year Singapore government bond, for example, has NOT bounced around in value like either real estate or bank stocks. And this is one reason why real estate properly belongs in the "stock-likes" bucket if you're going to divide assets into a couple buckets. Your home is illiquid and has high transaction costs, but in an alternative universe in which your home was securitized with 10,000 other homes then listed and traded on the SGX, its price would be bouncing around constantly, just like Ascendas REIT's price.

Your home is a complex asset in financial terms. It provides shelter, it requires upkeep (fixing broken toilets, refurbishing every so often, etc.), it's taxable in unique (generally higher) ways, it has a fixed "expiration date" if a leasehold, it has obligations attached (such as fees for maintaining common areas), it's not readily divisible, you can be forced to sell it even if you'd prefer not to (a new MRT station needs the plot for example)....it's a "strange beast," really. But when assessing that asset in relation to overall household portfolio risk, it's fairly simple. Count it, and consider it stock-like. Then explore the footnotes if you'd like.
 
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swordsly

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Assuming you are someone who intends to make Singapore your home, you are going to need a residence.

For someone who already has a residence, what does it matter if he/she takes into consideration said residence into his/her portfolio?
If he/she sells the current residence, he/she will still to buy one (or rent).
If there's profit after new purchase or deduction of total possible rental, then he/she can think about how the extra cash can serve his/her portfolio better.
If there's loss, then in the first place he/she will be busy trying to raise the necessary difference rather than worrying about his/her portfolio.

For someone who is intending to buy a residence, he/she would've already set a budget and a "by when". With that information on hand, he/she can easily calculate how much he/she would have to set aside before dumping the remaining into his/her portfolio.

So either way, I don't see a difference as to whether you count residence into your portfolio or not.
Sure you should be aware of all your assets but... in my opinion, it achieves little.

If you consider the value of your residence as stocks, then how do you determine the value? Sidelines always? And you are bound to incur some debt when you purchase your residence. So if the value is constant (or near constant) because you can't determine the value, wouldn't that remain as a red number in your accounting? Also if you share it with your spouse, then by what? Percentage contributed?

Of course if the residence is for income-generating purposes, then yeah but you wouldn't call that your residence anyway.
 
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Shiny Things

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However, there seems to be no USD.GBP ticker on IB's list of forex products.

It’s GBP.USD.

Side note: the convention in FX markets has always been that euros and commonwealth currencies get quoted before the USD. The actual rules for default quotation direction are horrifically complex, sometimes vary depending on which bank is asking, caused me no end of headaches at my previous job, and boy oh boy can I go on about them if you want to.

Hi ST,

I just spent a day reading though your book and found it enjoyable and informative. A topic that is not discussed though is on property and mortgage. Should one strive to pay of the mortgage on your own home asap before investing into stocks/bonds? If not necessary, wouldn't the investments be done on a "leveraged" basis?

Hey Razor - glad you liked the book! It sounds like you have a decent lump to invest, so generally I’d say it would be worth talking about a consulting arrangement, but there are definitely some basic principles you can put in place. (And BBCW’s already given you great advice; BBCW is good people and I need to buy them a beer next time I’m in the little red dot.)

Let’s go through the questions you had...

My current situation is that I have sufficient funds to pay off my mortgage but I have not done so, but have instead invested into SGD bonds since the bond yield is higher than the mortgage interest.

So on the face of it, this is not an entirely bonkers idea, though it’s fairly advanced (any sort of “borrowing to invest” is an advanced investing strategy and needs a degree of careful thought). The other forum-goers have correctly pointed out that you’ve concentrated your risk in a lot of companies, some of which are entertainingly risky, and if any one of them defaulted you’d suddenly be having a very bad time.

placed into safer assets, with low volatility and income producing. I choose to invest into SGD bonds as it was yielding better than the interest that I was paying.

But if I read you and the forum consensus correctly, then the savings should be invested proportionally, by age, into IWDA, STI and bond etf.

Yeah, basically.

A good way to think about it is: “Can I earn more from my investments than the interest rate on the mortgage? And if it all goes sideways, can I still cover the mortgage from my salary?”. If you can say yes to both questions, then if you’re a large investor, it might make sense to focus on investing instead of the mortgage.

For what it’s worth, I do this as well. I have a low-interest mortgage (a 30-year fixed at 3.5%! Thank you, US mortgage investors) which I can cover from my salary, and I can (on average) make more than 3.5% out of the diversified stock-and-bond portfolio I invest in (I follow my own rules for investing), so it doesn’t make sense to pay down my mortgage aggressively.

Based on my current asset allocation, I should be selling bonds and buying IWDA. That is where my hesitation is - I have mortgage debt and should I still be investing into higher volatility equities?

Yep! The key is that you’re going to be holding a widely diversified basket of equities—so they’re lower risk than piling it all into a single stock or a single country—and you’re going to be holding them for decades, so you won’t be forced to sell if the market goes down.

Really excellent stuff. Your simple illustrations really show factually which strategy is in fact safer. Definitely counter intuitive, especially when you think that taking on debt is taking on more risk.

However, if I could get a low cost loan on IWDA/ES3 etc (similar to mortgage loan rates), wouldn't it then be logical to max the LTV on those instruments out? Surely there is some point whereby this strategy becomes a really risky and even reckless proposition.

Yeah, this is a fair point, and I don’t think there’s a good rule of thumb for “how much debt should you have?”.

I think a better way to think about it is to carve your real estate holdings, and the loans against them, out of your investment portfolio entirely and think about them as two separate lumps. Of which more below:

Separately, on the topic of asset allocation - where do properties come in?

My current allocation is:
- 6% Cash (this is an emergency fund + daily expenses)
- 37% Bonds (including CPF monies)
- 8% Equities
- 49% Properties (44% is my primary residence, 5% in a rental property)

Based on my age, the recommended allocation is:
- 32% MBH
- 34% IWDA
- 34% ES3

Do I just exclude the value of properties in the above allocation model or should I count it under ES3 (since they are SG properties)? I have my own stay residence and another property that is earning rental. These are illiquid and chunky and would not be easy for me to switch asset classes.

I definitely wouldn’t count it as ES3, because properties and equities are separate asset classes (ask anyone who owned a house in the USA after the GFC, when houses bumped along the bottom for years while equities skyrocketed).

The three-fund strategy (MBH, IWDA, ES3) specifically doesn’t include property, because then it gets very difficult to say “does your house count as an investment, how should you allocate this”... it’s better to just carve properties out entirely and think of them as a separate lump.

Secondly, in my youth, my parents had purchased an AIA whole life insurance policy for me. It has already been serviced for the 23rd year by now. Should I surrender the policy and switch to ETFs or should I just consider it under my bond allocation? The cover that comes with the policy is not high. Projected yield if I surrender the policy in 2 years is 3.77%, in 7 years is 3.86%, if until age 65, will drop to 3.5%.

Toss it. Bond yields are very low at the moment, so projected yields will also be very low.

Hi everyone,

I've got a few quick (I hope) questions and would appreciate your input, thanks!

1) I understand that IB has layers of customer protection in case of insolvency. Should I still be concerned about the 500k limit of SIPC coverage per account for IB - should a second account be opened under my partner's name?

2) Is concentration risk a concern, where everything is held under IB? Should I consider using another broker to mitigate this?

1) No. Even if IBKR were to go insolvent, that doesn’t mean your stocks disappear. Especially if you’re not trading on margin, the stocks are ringfenced and IBKR’s not allowed to do funny stuff with them.

2) Also no. That’s just way too much headache for basically no gain.

Concentration risk refers to what you’re investing in, not what you’re investing through. If your portfolio is entirely in one company’s stock and that stock goes bust, you’ve lost all your money—but if your broker goes bust, then your accounts will generally get transferred to a new broker and it’s not a problem. The stocks are still there.

Which brokerage offers the cheapest commission for usd counters on Sgx? The trades should be directed to CDP rather than to be held in custodian by the broker.

Um. It’s probably going to be DBSV cash-upfront if you insist on CDP, but I’d love to be proven wrong.
 

wutawa

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Concentration risk refers to what you’re investing in, not what you’re investing through. If your portfolio is entirely in one company’s stock and that stock goes bust, you’ve lost all your money—but if your broker goes bust, then your accounts will generally get transferred to a new broker and it’s not a problem. The stocks are still there.



Um. It’s probably going to be DBSV cash-upfront if you insist on CDP, but I’d love to be proven wrong.
Will I still hold my stocks if SCB trading goes burst?
 

BBCWatcher

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I definitely wouldn’t count it as ES3, because properties and equities are separate asset classes (ask anyone who owned a house in the USA after the GFC, when houses bumped along the bottom for years while equities skyrocketed).
If you’re trying to apply a “two bucket model” to your household portfolio, as a rough assessment of portfolio risk, then you’ve got to put real estate in one of the two buckets. It definitely ought to go in the stock-like bucket. That’s not because real estate will always move in lockstep with broad stock market indices. Individual stocks and whole industry sectors don’t do that either — there’s plenty of sectoral variability. Bank stocks took a long time to recover, for example.

Likewise, traditional CPF assets ought to go in the bond-like bucket in a two bucket model.

If you want to use a three bucket model, or an N bucket model, OK. Or add some footnotes, OK. But in a two bucket model, in practice, one owner-occupied home and CPF will roughly cancel each other out (in typical, “rule of thumb” 80-20 stock-likes/bond-likes two bucket portfolio splits).

Including everything means you’re considering everything in your sanity checks, and that’s good. If real estate becomes more expensive (other things being equal), that’ll tend to push up the stocks-like percentage of your portfolio. You should know that — it’s a good thing to know. That might mean you ought to be more conservative for the rest of your portfolio, for example by making a CPF top up. Or you could choose to ignore it. It’s just a signal, one that’s surfaced in a simple two bucket model. As it happens, this signal would have been valuable through the Asian Financial Crisis and Global Financial Crisis. Why purposefully miss the signal? That makes no sense to me. Count it, get the signal, then decide what you want to do with the signal, if anything.

Another two bucket model is local v. global. A home in Singapore is local, so it goes in the local bucket. So are CPF, MBH, SSBs, ES3, and so forth. IWDA, VWRD, EIMI, CORP, etc. go in the global bucket. Then you decide if you’re comfortable with the level of geographic specific risk you’re taking (the “local” part). If property in Singapore increases in value, other things being equal, the local bucket percentage increases. You might wish to offset that with more lean into IWDA. Or not — it’s up to you — but the signal is surfaced, and you can decide whether and how to react to that signal.

And you can have two bucket models for sector concentrations, e.g. real estate and non-real estate, to decide whether you have too much sector-specific risks.

I like counting everything, and I like two bucket models. They’re easy to calculate. They give you some rough portfolio risk measures across various dimensions. Whether and how you react to risk signals is up to you. You’re not required to react, and sometimes you cannot. For example, if you work in Singapore (as a citizen or PR) you have compulsory CPF contributions. Maybe that means the bond-like percentage of your total portfolio is higher than you’d like it to be (maybe). But that’s not something you can change; it just is. No problem, you ignore that signal because it’s inoperable.

Assuming you are someone who intends to make Singapore your home, you are going to need a residence.
Housing, to be more precise. It could be family donated or subsidized (i.e. living in the exciting property known as “Mom & Dad Gardens”), employer-provided (you live in a monastery for example), or self-provided. It could be a short-term leasehold (as short as one night), a long-term leasehold, or a freehold. It could be HDB or private, landed or non-landed. It could even be across one of the causeways, or floating in a harbor — there are some people who do that, and they still work in Singapore. There are lots of choices.

For someone who already has a residence, what does it matter if he/she takes into consideration said residence into his/her portfolio?
It might not matter, but I think you should still count it. Any equity is part of total household wealth. I don’t think you should leave out a $100,000 baseball card you happen to own either. If it’s an asset, count it, toss it in.

It probably does matter, though. If you’re age 98, no children, receiving CPF LIFE at minimum Basic Plan level (because somebody told you CPF LIFE is bad), and have no other assets “except” a $5 million landed home, are you going to ignore that “minor” detail? No, of course not. You’re cash poor, true, but asset rich. And you’d very sensibly sell the landed property (which you wouldn’t be able to maintain anyway), raise cash, and have absolutely no problem finding housing for the rest of your life. Statistics show that Singaporeans move around a lot, and nearly 10% of them aren’t even living in Singapore. Property assets matter, and they deserve to be counted.

Over on the household budgeting side, you put “housing.” It counts there, too.

If he/she sells the current residence, he/she will still to buy one (or rent).
If there's profit after new purchase or deduction of total possible rental, then he/she can think about how the extra cash can serve his/her portfolio better.
If there's loss, then in the first place he/she will be busy trying to raise the necessary difference rather than worrying about his/her portfolio.
All great reasons to count it, at fair market value.
 
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razoreigns

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Hi ST and BBCW,

Its been really an enriching experience reading your posts. I have read them though over afew times to make sure that I really understand your points as I believe that you also put in great effort in your explanations.

View 1 - Exclude your residential property from the bond/equity split

View 2 - Include your residential property from the bond/equity split

I think the key question for practical implementation is, does the rule of thumb (110-Age) for equity portion, still apply for both views? Or should/can it be refined?


Example - 40 year old with 50% of his total assets in his residential property

View 1 - Exclude

Total Assets - 100%
Property - 50%
Bond Allocation (inclusive of CPF) - 15% = (40-10)%*50%
Stock Allocation - 35% = (110-40)%*50%

View 2 - Include

Total Assets - 100%
Property - 50%
Bond Allocation (inclusive of CPF) - 30% = (40-10)%*100%
Stock Allocation - 20% = ((110-40)%*100%)-50%


As can be seen from the above example, the same rule of thumb applied according to both views could result in very different decisioning on where to place the next investment dollar. In the example, what would be an appropriate risk appetite (equity/bond split) for a 40 year old?
 
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razoreigns

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Toss it. Bond yields are very low at the moment, so projected yields will also be very low.

Hi ST, sorry I didn't really get you. When you say "toss it", do you mean surrender the policy or do you mean, either keeping it or surrendering it is fine?
 
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d5dude

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Hi ST and BBCW,

Its been really an enriching experience reading your posts. I have read them though over afew times to make sure that I really understand your points as I believe that you also put in great effort in your explanations.

View 1 - Exclude your residential property from the bond/equity split

View 2 - Include your residential property from the bond/equity split

I think the key question for practical implementation is, does the rule of thumb (110-Age) for equity portion, still apply for both views? Or should/can it be refined?


Example - 40 year old with 50% of his total assets in his residential property

View 1 - Exclude

Total Assets - 100%
Property - 50%
Bond Allocation (inclusive of CPF) - 15% = (40-10)%*50%
Stock Allocation - 35% = (110-40)%*50%

View 2 - Include

Total Assets - 100%
Property - 50%
Bond Allocation (inclusive of CPF) - 30% = (40-10)%*100%
Stock Allocation - 20% = ((110-40)%*100%)-50%


As can be seen from the above example, the same rule of thumb applied according to both views could result in very different decisioning on where to place the next investment dollar. In the example, what would be an appropriate risk appetite (equity/bond split) for a 40 year old?

As mentioned by others, your risk appetite isn't going to be the same as everyone else, it depends on job security and other personal circumstances like financial commitments or total debt. There is no "right answer" that fits everyone.
 

razoreigns

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As mentioned by others, your risk appetite isn't going to be the same as everyone else, it depends on job security and other personal circumstances like financial commitments or total debt. There is no "right answer" that fits everyone.

Hi, I agree with you that everyone's risk appiette is different. But it isn't my intention to find a formula for customised situations.

The rule of thumb should be a rough gauge that is good enough for everyone, taking into account their age, and therefore appropriately assign risk.

The issue is really on the parameters surrounding the usage on the "rule of thumb" , which should still apply to all persons, generally.
 
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BBCWatcher

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Hi, I agree with you that everyone's risk appiette is different. But it isn't my intention to find a formula for customised situations.

The rule of thumb should be a rough gauge that is good enough for everyone, taking into account their age, and therefore appropriately assign risk.

The issue is really on the parameters surrounding the usage on the "rule of thumb" , which should still apply to all persons, generally.
OK, so I fundamentally take "View 2" in your numbering, which is basically to count it all, run whatever models you wish against the real and complete inputs, and then adjust the models and/or your decisions if you wish.

Let me start with this: I prefer a slightly different model for long-term investing. I prefer the "Vanguard Target Date" model, which is (oversimplifying slightly):

(a) Hold an 80-20 stocks/bonds split until 7 years before drawdown age, then
(b) Use the 7 year period before drawdown age to rebalance from 80-20 to 30-70, then
(c) Hold 30-70 thereafter, or possibly slowly rebalance to 20-80.

I prefer this model because retirement age expectations vary, life expectancies vary, and life expectancy is increasing (in Singapore anyway). The "110" makes assumptions about all of those factors, and there's no need to make those assumptions fixed since you (the long-term investor) can probably make some good estimates for yourself. It also implies a progressively increasing bond allocation through an entire working career, and I don't think cutting off that corner of the rectangle makes much sense. And 110-age implies more active trading because every year the percentages change, and I just don't think that's a good implication psychologically, at least. Prudent long-term investing should be very non-active, with an awful lot of "keep doing more the same way" doggedness. Vanguard fundamentally agrees with me because that's how they've designed their target date funds, so I'm in good company. ;)

OK, here in Singapore there's a "problem": housing is just so damn expensive. If you consume your housing in owner-occupied form, then (for most households) the equity will eventually be a relatively huge share of total household wealth. That's just how it goes.

Now, we could just wave all that away and pretend that important wealth doesn't exist. But I don't like that idea. Doing that would mean, among other things, that an otherwise similarly situated family that buys a 4 bedroom condo compared to another family that buys a 2 bedroom HDB (3 room unit) would be taking equal total investment risks (in allocation percentage terms) if all other savings were invested in the same way. And that's just not right. There really is more stock-like risk for Family #1 compared to Family #2.

OK, let's suppose 50% of total household wealth is tied up in owner-occupied home equity, as in the scenarios you've outlined. And let's suppose we use the "Vanguard model" to evaluate the stock-bond portfolio split for a basic, point-in-time risk assessment. That'd mean that the other half (50%) would be split 60-40 between stocks and bonds. Is that pretty good? Yes, that looks OK to me as a rule of thumb.

OK, fast forward, and now we're getting near retirement. So the "Vanguard model" suggests a 30-70 split when the couple (let's suppose) hits age 65 (for example, as a classic/traditional retirement age). And let's suppose home equity represents 50% of total household wealth, still. Thus, even if the entire other half of total household wealth shifted to bonds, Vanguard's "rule of thumb" 30-70 split can never be achieved, not with this level of home equity. Is *that* a problem? Maybe, maybe not. At that point you can simply say, "Well, I'm not going to sell my home, and I still think it's the right size. And I feel comfortable with keeping 15% of my total wealth in stocks and the rest in bonds by the time I hit age 65." And that's fine, you can make that decision. As long as the home is not too burdensome in the circumstances, no problem. This signal just gives you something to think about, that's all. It's a good signal -- homes really are stupidly expensive in Singapore! -- and it's just reminding you of the importance to exercise caution in not getting too carried away with the expensive stuff.

Now, if you want to get slightly fancy, you could do something like this -- and it'd probably be consistent with the "Vanguard model" and its U.S. context. What you could do is decide to re-run the model but exclude the portion of home equity that would equal a "right sized" HDB unit with a remaining leasehold to age 110. (Here we'll use that 110 age, with current understanding of life expectancies.) For example, if you're a couple at age 50 (or thereabouts), go look at the resale prices of 2 room or 3 room HDB units with 60 years of remaining leasehold. Whatever that reference price is, subtract it from the home equity you actually hold. Take the remaining home equity above that baseline -- call it "investment-oriented real estate equity" -- and run your stocks-bonds model based on that number.

That seems like a reasonable approach to me. You'd be taking the equity attributable to non-lavish, baseline housing needs out, which is really an expression of prepaid rent (60 years of remaining leasehold).

The "Vanguard model" has some implicit exclusions of necessity, in particular typical U.S. home equity (for an assumed single owner-occupied home that's non-lavish in the circumstances) and U.S. Social Security retirement benefits. And the percentages Vanguard applies to its target date funds might not be the right ones. The late Jack Bogle, Vanguard's founder, actually had a minor, polite disagreement with those who decided the target date fund allocations. Specifically, he didn't think they should have raised the fund percentage allocated to non-U.S. listed stocks. So far Bogle has been proven right, but maybe going forward he'll be proven wrong -- who knows.

Returning to the original point, though, I just think "signals" coming out of simple checks are useful, but maybe that's just me since I don't get worried about a signal that's flashing yellow. It's just something for me to consider, not necessarily or even very often for me to act on. Right now I happen to have a "signal" flashing that I'm notionally too bond heavy, as it happens. Yes, OK, but (upon investigation and further analysis) I have two reactions to that: (1) to some degree there's no remedy available, because I'm only one person in the household, and (2) I think I'm OK being a little more conservative at this time since I can see a couple large expenses that could pop up within the next few years. I'll keep an eye on the signal (and any others), then take another look about 6 months from now.
 
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