New Astrea V

Pesantkie

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What does the bond issuer Astrea V Pte Ltd (say they) plan to do with the money collected from the sale of the 3 classes of Astrea V PE bonds (i.e. class A-1, A-2 and B)?

The Issuer intends to use the gross proceeds from the Bonds
issuance to repay part of the loans incurred in connection with the
acquisition of the Fund Investments, as well as to pay fees and
expenses incurred in connection with the issue and offering of the
Bonds.

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Pesantkie

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I dont think so. SSB is straightforward, the govt buys it back and the valuation is determinant, based on the interest accrued.

In case of this Astrea Bond, you need to sell it on a stock exchange or maybe FSM platform and somebody should be willing to buy it. The price that they are willing to buy it may not be something you like to sell at.

I guess the liquidity situation for Astrea should be better than TEKB. I sold my TEKB through FSMOne. It takes about 2 weeks to process the transfer-in. Service provided by FSMOne was great. For example when my limit sell order is 102.000, the dealer called me to ask if I want to sell it at 101.838. I think there is no liquidity issue if selling of small lots cause at the point in time there was 5 lots buying at 1.022 and I filled their order.

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Han Shot First

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The Issuer intends to use the gross proceeds from the Bonds
issuance to repay part of the loans incurred in connection with the
acquisition of the Fund Investments, as well as to pay fees and
expenses incurred in connection with the issue and offering of the
Bonds.

Any idea why the Astrea V Pte Ltd does not want to use the cash flow from the PE funds/companies to "repay part of the loans incurred in connection with the acquisition of the Fund Investments" directly rather than using the bond issuance and hence having "to pay fees and expenses incurred in connection with the issue and offering of the Bonds"?
 

Pesantkie

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Any idea why the Astrea V Pte Ltd does not want to use the cash flow from the PE funds/companies to "repay part of the loans incurred in connection with the acquisition of the Fund Investments" directly rather than using the bond issuance and hence having "to pay fees and expenses incurred in connection with the issue and offering of the Bonds"?

Probably cash flow is unpredictable.

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chiokcc

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A good summary write-up by Mr. IPO
https://singapore-ipos.blogspot.com/2019/06/astrea-v-class-1-pe-bonds.html

He highlighted this interesting allocation policy :
allocation.PNG
 

loonglow

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So let's say we don't sell it and hold it for 10 years, after 10 years principle would come back automatically to debiting bank account? Provided the bond doenst go bust off course . Will that require any special effort on our end or is automatic?

So just submit for 5k and enjoy 4pa returns for 5 years and 5 pa returns for another 5 years with interest credited bi annually to the bank account ?

Yes, interest and principle will automatically credit to your cdp link bank account.
 

Soul77

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If I understand correctly, this is like REIT. So these PE invest in some private startup and unicorns. And their money stuck inside, so they transfer some of this to public?
 

revhappy

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So let's say we don't sell it and hold it for 10 years, after 10 years principle would come back automatically to debiting bank account? Provided the bond doenst go bust off course . Will that require any special effort on our end or is automatic?

So just submit for 5k and enjoy 4pa returns for 5 years and 5 pa returns for another 5 years with interest credited bi annually to the bank account ?

Yes, correct. Just like dividend payout is automatic into bank account. Bond redemption on maturity is also automatic.
 

BBCWatcher

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Yes, correct. Just like dividend payout is automatic into bank account. Bond redemption on maturity is also automatic.
Into the bank account linked to CDP, which isn’t necessarily the bank account used to buy the security and which can be changed at any time, and provided the security doesn’t default.

Also, if people read the prospectus — isn’t anybody doing that, please? — one would learn it’s very unlikely this particular security will run 10 years. It’s designed primarily to run 5 years.
 

tangent314

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So just submit for 5k and enjoy 4pa returns for 5 years and 5 pa returns for another 5 years with interest credited bi annually to the bank account ?

Don't count on the 5% after 5 years. The bond will almost certainly be called at 5 years, unless interest rates takes a drastic rise during these 5 years.
 

klarklar

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Anyone tried to apply for this bond using DBS internet banking? Did you successfully applied? I tried to but cannot find the menu option to do it.
 

wira

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Anyone tried to apply for this bond using DBS internet banking? Did you successfully applied? I tried to but cannot find the menu option to do it.

yes. its under Electronica Shares Application (ESA) service.
 

Han Shot First

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If I understand correctly, this is like REIT. So these PE invest in some private startup and unicorns. And their money stuck inside, so they transfer some of this to public?

If I understand correctly, their money stuck inside the PE funds/companies, so they use this "securitization process = bond issuance" to transfer the risk of the PE (private equity) asset class to the public. They collect the lump sum of money (at present value immediately at bond IPO), and in return promise to pay the (periodic stream of) bond coupons (at approximately equivalent interest rate of a corporate bond) and eventually the principal at maturity back to the "bond" buyers.

So if I understand correctly, the bond buyer assumes private equity risk and accepts corporate bond interest rate as reward in exchange. The bond issuer keeps its private equity reward (because this reward is never (fully) transferred to the "bond" buyer) and reduces its own risk in its PE investments.
 

Geeezz

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If I understand correctly, their money stuck inside the PE funds/companies, so they use this "securitization process = bond issuance" to transfer the risk of the PE (private equity) asset class to the public. They collect the lump sum of money (at present value immediately at bond IPO), and in return promise to pay the (periodic stream of) bond coupons (at approximately equivalent interest rate of a corporate bond) and eventually the principal at maturity back to the "bond" buyers.

So if I understand correctly, the bond buyer assumes private equity risk and accepts corporate bond interest rate as reward in exchange. The bond issuer keeps its private equity reward (because this reward is never (fully) transferred to the "bond" buyer) and reduces its own risk in its PE investments.

this is to my understanding as well. the sale of this bond is much more advantages to Azalea. the speedingbullet guy will be more well verse since iirc he did say he is from the pe side.

even if say we can only get 8k "max" from the ipo which seems to be a small amount to ppl here, I will still stay away from this mainly because I do not like the risk-reward and it does not fit into my portfolio. Having the money does not mean that you just buy it because you can, how it suits you is more important. You don't get buy a $8K tv when you already have one just because you can, there is no reason to. so if there are ppl out there who is like, since it is only 8k why not just get it, I would say skipping this is a better option imo

a product being well received by AI doesn't mean anything. Being an AI and investment savvy can be mutually exclusive. those in pb should know, it's all sales at the end of the day. (isn't it strange that the newspaper and all keep on saying "Temasek", "Temasek", "Temasek"? and the article even shows Temasek picture. it is all marketing)

all in all, there will always be two side of a trade. those who buy and those who didn't. if it work out, those who buy will laugh at those who missed their chance. if it didn't those who didn't buy will laugh at those buyer decision. I mean at the end of the day, there is no sure win or rather we will not know if it's sure win beforehand, so the best thing to do is to read both side arguments and make your own choice rather than shutting down whatever information which doesn't alight with your belief
 
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FrostWurm

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If I understand correctly, their money stuck inside the PE funds/companies, so they use this "securitization process = bond issuance" to transfer the risk of the PE (private equity) asset class to the public. They collect the lump sum of money (at present value immediately at bond IPO), and in return promise to pay the (periodic stream of) bond coupons (at approximately equivalent interest rate of a corporate bond) and eventually the principal at maturity back to the "bond" buyers.

So if I understand correctly, the bond buyer assumes private equity risk and accepts corporate bond interest rate as reward in exchange. The bond issuer keeps its private equity reward (because this reward is never (fully) transferred to the "bond" buyer) and reduces its own risk in its PE investments.

To clarify a bit, as BBCW has pointed out, it is a structured finance instrument, which is not entirely the same as a corporate bond.

A corporate bond is issued by a company in operation, whereas for structured finance it is more akin to a group of investors who want to invest(in the broadest sense of the word) but want to borrow money from you to do so (in addition to some of their own). The money you lend them is "collateralized" by that specific group of investments.

As a result, there are different "tranches" in the structure of the combined money (yours and the investors) which denote the seniority and yield you will get. Naturally, the more senior you are, the lower your yield. However, this also means if that group of investments go belly up, you will be earlier in line to get your money back due to your seniority.

The earlier-mentioned investors usually form the equity tranche of the structure, which is usually the lowest level in seniority. In the case of Astrea V, about 55% of the entire structure is equity. If there are any losses, they will be the first to lose and but the debt obligation to you remains unchanged.

So in a simplified way of looking at it (ignoring some other specific details), if you are a Class A-1 holder of the "bonds", it will take a write-off of more than 50% of the total investment value before you suffer any loss. On the other hand, the equity tranche (the investors) will lose almost everything in such a scenario.

However, if the investments do exceedingly well, you will get back your money in full. But, the equity investors will be laughing their way to the bank. They may even have made several times of what they originally put in. This is because they keep any upside in the investment, while you only get back what you lent them.

So you get less risk, but also less reward. They get more risk, but also more reward. Life is fair eh? :s13:

But whether it is because some their money is "stuck" and they want to cash it out by getting investors like us to lend them money(leveraged recap) or they simply need more money to invest cause its cheaper to borrow rather than put up their own money I don't know. Maybe some PE guys will know better for this case.
 
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